Why do we place New Testament writings over Old Testament.

To answer the question, I am Christian, not Jew. If we read the old testament as a Jew would, then we’re being Jews not Christians. The New Covenant was shadowed and foretold in part in the OT, but is fully revealed only in the NT, and even then only it is only fully taught from Romans onwards.

The New Covenant is the Covenant between God the Father and Jesus that we get to benefit from by being in Jesus. The Old Covenant is the Covenant between God and the Jewish people. There were other previous covenants between God and various individuals and there’s the Covenant between God and humanity that He will never again flood the earth (from the time of Noah). These are not the same as the Old and New testament.

The OT is clearly the Hebrew / Jewish scripture that we get to learn and benefit from. It was written to the Jews. It was not written TO us, but it is written FOR us to learn from. The New Testament is the Christian scripture and that is written to us and for us. But even the book of John was written to the unsaved for the purpose of evangelism John 20:31 but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.

Does that mean that once you’re a Christian you don’t need the book of John? No! But it says, of itself, that it’s written so that you [the reader] may believe and have life in Jesus’ name. If the bible says THAT is the purpose of the book, we are obligated to accept that as the purpose. We cannot delete John 20:31 from the bible, even if it contradicts our tradition or belief!
Jesus taught as one under the law and was speaking to those who were still under the law. So not everything Jesus said applies to Christians.

We have to take careful note of John 16:12. It is clear that Jesus never spoke of those many things prior to His ascension. It is also clear that we cannot accept works like the book of Mormon or Koran as fulfilments of this scripture. So we have to find these many things somewhere in the bible, by definition from Acts onwards.

It seems clear to me that there are two separate bodies of work that fulfil John 16:12. Paul’s writings, which were received by direct revelation from Jesus, not from any man Gal 1:12. Plus the book of revelation.

So we have to read Jesus’ own words in the light of these two sets of writings – yes the words of Paul take precedence over the words of Jesus.


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